Project management

see attachment:

1. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.

   a. true

   b. false

Q2. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:

   a. It only focuses on things that can be measured

   b. It takes time frame into consideration

   c. It is too much based on subjective judgment

   d. It does not entail prioritizing

Q3. Good functional requirements

   a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed

   b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do

   c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do

   d. Are created after development of the technical specifications

Q4. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.

   a. true

   b. false

Q5. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:

   a. A chart of accounts

   b. A code of accounts

   c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)

   d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)

Q6. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:

   a. Staff empowerment

   b. Technical requirements of the project

   c. Theory X management principles

   d. Theory Y management principles

Q7. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.

   a. true

   b. false

Q8. The poor man’s hierarchy is a method for:

   a. Project estimation

   b. Project scheduling

   c. WBS construction

   d. Project selection

Q9. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:

   a. Scope statement definition

   b. WBS construction

   c. Rapid prototyping

   d. Configuration management

Q10. The astute project manager typically uses only one management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates.

   a. true

   b. false

Q11. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:

   a. PERT

   b. GERT

   c. VERT

   d. Project Evaluation

Q12. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?

   a. $750

   b. $1,000

   c. $1,250

   d. $1,333

Q13. If review of a project’s status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:

   a. On budget, behind schedule

   b. On budget, ahead of schedule

   c. Over budget, behind schedule

   d. Over budget, ahead of schedule

Q14. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.

   a. true

   b. false

Q15. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:

   a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates

   b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan

   c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant

   d. To re-baseline the project budget

Q16. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.

   a. true

   b. false

Q17. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.

   a. true

   b. false

Q18. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as:

   a. Egoless

   b. Specialty

   c. Surgical

   d. Isomorphic

Q19. Which of the following is an example of a project?

   a. Maintaining e-mail addresses

   b. Capacity planning

   c. Submitting travel and expense reports

   d. Sending monthly reports to top management

Q20. The critical path:

   a. Provides the duration of a project

   b. Has the shortest duration on a project

   c. Is the most expensive path to implement

   d. Contains the project’s most significant tasks

Q21. In risk management, insurance is an example of:

   a. Risk avoidance

   b. Risk deflection

   c. Risk acceptance

   d. Contingency planning

Q22. The bottom-most level of the WBS — the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured — is called:

   a. Work package

   b. Code of accounts

   c. Budget baseline

   d. Change control level

Q23. What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in configuration management?

   a. To assess the management impacts of change requests

   b. To initiate changes needed on the project

   c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests

   d. To approve change requests coming from senior management

Q24. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:

   a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project

   b. Show how many resources will be used on the project

   c. Show the interdependencies of tasks

   d. Show actual versus planned schedule status

Q25. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.

   a. true

   b. false

Q26. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.

   a. true

   b. false

Q27. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:

   a. A resource Gantt chart

   b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)

   c. A resource ogive

   d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)

Q28. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.

   a. true

   b. false

Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?

   a. Benefit/cost analysis

   b. WBS

   c. Earned Value analysis

   d. Fast tracking

Q30. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.

   a. true

   b. false

Q31. Scope creep means:

   a. Needs emergence and identification

   b. Uncontrolled changes to a project’s requirements during project execution

   c. Migration of project needs to requirements

   d. Imprecise scope statement

Q32. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.

   a. true

   b. false

Q33. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project’s schedule.

   a. true

   b. false

Q34. Bottom-up estimates:

   a. Are based on historical trends

   b. Can be derived from the WBS

   c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation

   d. a and c

Q35. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.

   a. true

   b. false

Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.

   a. true

   b. false

Q37. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization.

   a. true

   b. false

Q38. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:

   a. Management by Objectives

   b. Management by Exception

   c. Management by Walking Around

   d. Management by Control Limits

Q39. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?

   a. Resource Gantt chart

   b. Resource matrix

   c. S-Curve

   d. Resource leveling

Q40. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?

   a. SMART

   b. KISS

   c. MBO


Q41. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?

   a. 0.5 hours

   b. 1.5 hours

   c. 2.5 hours

   d. 8.5 hours

Q42. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.

   a. true

   b. false

Q43. Configuration management is a:

   a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs

   b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements

   c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them

   d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input

Q44. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on

   a. Tasks

   b. Deliverables

   c. Interrelationships among activities

   d. Cost of the project

Q45. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?

   a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources

   b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources

   c. If the request is coming from a valued customer

   d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer

Q46. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?

   a. Crashing

   b. Fast tracking

   c. Leveling

   d. Hammocking

Q47. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):

   a. Are based on historical trends

   b. Can be derived from the WBS

   c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages

   d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs

Q48. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves.

   a. true

   b. false

Q49. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:

   a. Bottom-up estimates

   b. Top-down estimates

   c. Expert judgment cost estimates

   d. Order of magnitude estimates

Q50. An effective project manager must:

   a. Tell his team members what to do

   b. Be the most capable person on the team technically

   c. Be focused on achieving results

   d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail